Does Hashem Have Bechirah?

Rabbi Shapiro

Thanks for this site, it is really great to find somewhere that all of these difficult concepts are explained in plain English.
I apologise in advance if this question is dealt with elsewhere on the site, I have looked around but I could possibly have overlooked it.

I have always wondered whether Hashem has true bechirah. As Hashem is perfect, it is axiomatic that all the effects he has are perfect. As such, if there are two options in front of Hashem, one less perfect than the other, He would surely be ‘forced’ to do the more perfect one.

In this sense, I am of course talking about perfect in terms of the effect that is most in line with Hashem’s nature, whatever that may be. Of course we cannot know what the more perfect option is both because we cannot possibly judge all of the effects that it will cause but also because we don’t really know what the true nature of Hashem is either.

In any case, does this not suggest that Hashem does not really have bechirah? Or does He have bechirah only in cases where the two options both have equally perfect effects (if that is ever possible)?

Possibly more critically, even if there is a situation where Hashem does have bechira, surely this is a far more limited bechirah than man has. Man has the option of choosing to do evil, whereas surely Hashem does not have that option.

Two things.

One: Hashem has full Bechirah. He is totally בלתי נתלה בזולתו - not dependent on anything. Nothing restricts Him, nothing impacts on Him, nothing affects Him. This is included in His being הכל יכול.

And, as Rabbeinu Ezra (a Rebbi of the Ramban) points out, part of being הכל יכול is creating something that is imperfect, if He so chooses. For if we were to say that Hashem could not create something imperfect, that itself would be an imperfection.

The problem is, you are understanding Hashem's "perfection" improperly. You are looking at "perfection" (or "flawlessness") when it comes to Hashem the same way we look at the concept of "perfection" when we describe a diamond, or a grade on a test. That is, matching some preexisting parameters that we decided are indicative of superiority.

In other words, when we describe something as "perfect," we first need to define what "perfect" means in relation to whatever it is whose perfection or imperfection we are judging. For example, when we talk about diamonds (i.e. perfection there means flawlessness) or test grades (i.e. perfection there means accuracy). Same for anything else we describe as "perfect."

But that is not what we mean when we say Hashem is perfect. Perfection in that sense is a type of limitation. A perfect diamond cannot have a scratch; a perfect test score cannot have an inaccurate answer. But you can't put Hashem in a box like that.

Your "axiom" that Hashem must create perfect things is part of the box you are trying to fit Hashem into. It is a criterion you created to define "perfection." But Hashem is not bound to that.

Think, instead, of Hashem as being limitless. הכל יכול - כולו פשוט - בלתי נתלה בזולתו, which means the lack of parameters, as opposed to "perfection" which means having certain (arbitrarily pre-defined) parameters (Please read the rest of this "Hashem" forum.).

Hashem's will is described in the Seforim as "רצונו הפשוט". This means Hashem wills things not because something caused Him to but because He simply (פשוט) willed it. As opposed to when we will something, there is always something that caused us to want whatever it is we want. There is nothing that causes Hashem to do - or want - anything.

So no, Hashem does not have to create perfect things. He does not have to do anything. He only does what He wants, and only because He wants. With no limitations, no restrictions, nothing to cause Him to act any given way. בלתי נתלה בזולתו

Second, I am not understanding what you mean by "as Hashem is perfect, it is axiomatic that all the effects He has are perfect." What do you mean by "perfect" when referring to Hashem's creations? If you mean "perfect" the way Hashem is perfect, that is not only not axiomatic, it is impossible. Hashem's "perfection" is absolute, whereas everything else is only perfect relative to something else less perfect. As the Ramchal writes: ספר דרך ה' א:ב - כי הנה הוא ית"ש שלם בעצמו, ולא במקרה, אלא מצד אמתת ענינו מוכרח בו השלימות ומשוללים ממנו החסרונות בהכרח. ואולם זה אי אפשר שימצא בזולתו, שיהיה אמתתו מכרחת לו השלימות ומעדרת ממנו החסרונות.

When we say "perfect" in regard to Hashem, it is a type of perfection that cannot be found anywhere else. If something else would be "perfect" in the way Hashem is, that thing would be a reproduction of Hashem c"v, which is of course impossible. See here.

So when we use the word "perfect" for Hashem and for something else, they are only homonyms, and do not mean the same thing at all.

Therefore, how can it be possible (never mind axiomatic) that Hashem's effects should be perfect because He is? Perfection the way He is perfect is impossible in anything else except Him. And the type of perfection that is possible is something other than Him is something that He does not possess. So why would Hashem's being "perfect" result in His effects being something totally different but described homonymically?

And your assumption that if Hashem cannot do "evil" it means He is restricted, is an error in logic. Evil, however you define it, is certainly not benevolent. And an act that is not benevolent can be done for two reasons: (1) for the benefit of the doer, or (2) for no reason at all (as opposed to a benevolent act, which can be done for the sake of the recipient).

For Hashem to do something for His own benefit is impossible. Since Hashem is perfect, He cannot benefit from anything. And to do things for no reason at all is foolish, and therefore an imperfection. Therefore, no matter which reason for doing evil you choose (for your benefit or no benefit), doing evil requires an imperfection. Therefore, saying Hashem is limited because He cannot do evil is saying that Hashem is limited because He cannot be imperfect. But not being imperfect is not a limitation. It is not a limitation to be unlimited.

Therefore, your question is not different than asking that Hashem's freedom must be limited because He cannot scratch His nose, or make another Hashem, or kill Himself. And we have already explained why none of those constitute imperfections in Hashem here. The reason is, those abilities themselves are imperfections, and perfection precludes having them.

HI rabbi Shapiro, Can you please clarify some question I have according to logic?:

First what does it mean that Hashem is perfect it means that he is lacking nothing in my understanding is that correct?

Secondly, why does the fact that Hashem is perfect means he had to have a reason for creating the world? Why couldn't he just do it stam?

And even if he had to have a reason who says it has to be for our benefit? Maybe it's not for a benefit?

And if it is maybe it was for the benefit of something else in the world? Who says it has to be for PEOPLE'S good? Maybe only for certain people? Or for other creations?

Can you please answer these as soon as possible and according to logic only. Thank you so much appreciate your time/effort!

First what does it mean that Hashem is perfect it means that he is lacking nothing in my understanding is that correct?

 

It's not really "lacking nothing." That sounds like Hashem has all possible desirable possessions, or something like that. What it really means is He has no imperfections. It's more of what He does not have than what He does have. See the "Achduso" and "Pashtuso" threads in this forum.

why does the fact that Hashem is perfect means he had to have a reason for creating the world? Why couldn't he just do it stam?

 

Because that would be an imperfection, a foolishness, to act with no beneficial reason at all. Remember: When we say that Hashem has no "imperfections" we are defining the word by our understanding. So for example, one cannot say "Maybe Hashem is weak and weakness is not an imperfection." That won't work. What is an imperfection to us is what we negate from Hashem. And therefore, to do something with no impetus at all makes no sense, and is illogical. it can only come from someone who does not follow what makes sense. That certainly is an imperfection and we cannot attribute it to Hashem.

even if he had to have a reason who says it has to be for our benefit? Maybe it's not for a benefit?

 

A self-motivated reason is always a benefit. A benefit means that after the act is done, something desirable as accomplished. Unless of course someone was affected by an outside reason, meaning something was done to you (which is impossible for Hashem). If a self-motivated action is for no benefit, what could possibly motivate someone to perform the action?

maybe it was for the benefit of something else in the world? Who says it has to be for PEOPLE'S good? Maybe only for certain people? Or for other creations?

 

The First-cause line of reasoning does not claim to prove that. 

maybe it was for the benefit of something else in the world? Who says it has to be for PEOPLE'S good? Maybe only for certain people? Or for other creations?

 

The First-cause line of reasoning does not claim to prove that.

 

Can you explain that answer? I don't understand.

First, you need to see this forum, where your question really belongs.

 

What I mean to say is, there are different proofs for different things. The proof we are discussing in this thread - the first-cause proof - only claims to prove that the world had to be created by Hashem, and, Step 2 - that it had to have been created for the sake of the creations. 

 

Which creations precisely did Hashem create the world for? That is not within the scope of this discussion. For that, you will have to use other lines of reasoning.

 

In particular, see here, here, and also see the Ramchal's Derech Hashem 1:2.